Persecution

Persecution

Monday, July 25, 2016

νομοις "nomois"

νομοις
"nomois"

2.)        νομοις         nu; omikron; mu; omikron; iota; final sigma                 "nomois"

          Appears (2) times in the LXX.
 
            Est_8:11:         By these letters the King permitted the Jews who were in every city to
                                    gather together and protect their lives--to destroy, kill, and annihilate all
                                    the forces of any people or province that would assault them, both little
                                    children and women, and to plunder their possessions...


            LXX:   ὡς ἐπέταξεν αὐτοῖς χρῆσθαι τοῖς νόμοις αὐτῶν ἐν πάσῃ πόλει βοηθῆσαί τε αὑτοῖς
                       
καὶ χρῆσθαι τοῖς ἀντιδίκοις αὐτῶν καὶ τοῖς ἀντικειμένοις αὐτῶν ὡς βούλονται,
                       

            HEB:   There is NO TERM in the Hebrew text to indicate this Greek word should be
                        used. It is injected into the text.

אשׁרH834 Wherein  נתןH5414 granted  המלךH4428 the king  
ליהודיםH3064 the Jews  אשׁרH834 which בכלH3605 in every  עירH5892 city  
ועירH5892 city  להקהלH6950 to gather themselves together, 
ולעמדH5975 and to stand  עלH5921 for  נפשׁםH5315 their life,  
להשׁמידH8045 to destroy,  ולהרגH2026 to slay, 
ולאבדH6 and to cause to perish,  אתH853  כלH3605 all  
חילH2426  עםH5971 of the people ומדינהH4082 and province  
הצריםH6696 that would assault  אתםH853  טףH2945 them, little ones 
ונשׁיםH802 and women,  ושׁללםH7998 and the spoil  לבוז׃H962 of them for a prey,

           
            Dan_9:10:       We have not obeyed the voice of the LORD our God, to walk in His laws,
                                    which He set before us by His servants the prophets.


            LXX:               καὶ οὐκ εἰσηκούσαμεν τῆς φωνῆς κυρίου τοῦ θεοῦ ἡμῶν πορεύεσθαι ἐν
                             
τοῖς νόμοις αὐτοῦ, οἷς ἔδωκεν κατὰ πρόσωπον ἡμῶν ἐν χερσὶν τῶν
                             
δούλων αὐτοῦ τῶν προφητῶν.


          HEB:   

 ולאH3808 Neither  שׁמענוH8085 have we obeyed  בקולH6963 the voice  
יהוהH3069  אלהינוH430 our God,  ללכתH1980 to walk 
בתורתיו H8451 in his laws,  
אשׁרH834 which  נתןH5414 he set  לפנינוH6440 before בידH3027 us by  
עבדיוH5650 his servants  הנביאים׃H5030 the prophets.


We COULD make a case that THIS particular variant DOES refer to the TORAH because in the passage where the term is not added it actually DOES refer to the Torah of Moses.           


This variant does NOT APPEAR in the Greek New Testament.

νομοι "nomoi"

νομοι
"nomoi"

1.)        νομοι              nu; omikron; mu; omikron; iota                                 "nomoi"

            Appears (2) times in the LXX.                       Ester 3:8, Jeremiah 31:36
           
            In Ester 3:8 "nomoi" is used twice. It is used to translate Strong's # H1881; the Hebrew
            term "dath" (
דּת). In this passage "dath" is used to designate both the "laws" of the
            "certain people" of whom Haman is telling the King about. It is also used to designate
            the "laws" of the King of Persia.       

            In Jeremiah 31:36 it is used to translate the Hebrew term "choq" (חק) H2706 meaning:

                                   
From H2710; an enactment; hence an appointment (of time, space,
                                    quantity, labor or usage): - appointed, bound, commandment,
                                    convenient, custom, decree (-d), due, law, measure, X necessary,
                                    ordinance (-nary), portion, set time, statute, task.

This variant does NOT APPEAR in the Greek New Testament.

Because of Ester and Jeremiah we CANNOT say this term

always means "Torah;" the Commandments given by Moses.

Tuesday, June 21, 2016

Why the Misunderstanding about the Torah ?

WHY THE MISUNDERSTANDING ABOUT THE TORAH?

            Many Christians; Jews, and, non-Christians alike believe today that the New Testament is teaching the Torah of Moses is irrelevant to the Christian believer; because, it was "fulfilled" by Jesus Christ. Their understanding of "fulfilled" is based upon a biased selection of terms associated with the Greek ROOT word "pleyroo" a.k.a. Strong's # G4137. This bias comes not from a complete, and exhaustive study of the appearance, and usage of the exact term used in Matthew 5:17 "pleyrosai." Instead it is often based upon a shallow examination of the term (by glancing at the Strong's definition); coupled with trust, and faith in the explanations given to them by pastoral staff.

The majority of Christians will never go to the extent I am suggesting to really understand what a term actually means. Because we are products of a "fast food generation" who wants their food in sixty seconds or less at the drive through we want our answers to Biblical questions the same way. We "Google" a question and want an answer right away. This teaching about Messiah is spread almost entirely through modern Christianity and is an accurate depiction of what the "modern church" is teaching its members. It is also why a great deal of Jews continue to reject the "Jesus" being portrayed by modern Christianity. There is a valid and legitimate reason there were "myriads of Jews who believe" as stated in Acts 21:20 "and they are all zealous for the law." Friend I tell you the truth when WE get our doctrine correct THEN they will see Messiah as he really is; and accept Him. Subsequently so shall we.

This belief that Jesus "did away with the Torah;" or "nailed it to the cross;" or "set it aside;" or that "I'm not under the law I'm under grace" is "supported" by thirty-seven passages contained primarily in the Epistles of Paul which are essentially one sided letters. Paul's writing are systematically abused by those who are untaught and unstable to abrogate the Torah of Moses; and, even the words of Messiah Himself

This false doctrine is mingled with the coupling of pagan holidays; the rejection of the Biblical Sabbath; practicing a lifestyle that is not adherent to standards considered scripturally kosher; and, reflects an attitude that the "church" is separate and distinct from the "Jews." We have been taught to pollute our "temples" and then wonder why we do not see the occurrence of miracles which existed in the body of the early church of the first century. Furthermore the presence of "replacement theology" is present, pervasive, hostile towards anything "Jewish;" and contributes to a climate of anti-Semitism within the "church" which has existed for centuries furthering the divide between the Jew and non-Jew. We must become more serious students seeking to THINK and BEHAVE like those believers in the first century who were followers of Messiah; not as those who are separated by 2,000 years of doctrine hostile to the truth. Friends we were warned by Peter that there would be false teachers. Unfortunately the majority of Christianity doesn't even know the scriptural litmus test for discerning a false teacher from a legitimate one.

For most Christians who are more serious about reading their Bible the use of the Strong's Concordance serves to harden the rift which exists by keeping the student from adhering to a steady, consistent, translation of the meaning of terms between the Old Testament (TaNaK) and the New Testament (Brit Chadashah). Notice on the photos below how the Strong's serves to give the reader the ROOT word used (G3551); but, not the ACTUAL WORD of the Greek used in each passage. This method is the same for terms from the Hebrew text of the Old Testament as well as for terms in the Greek New Testament. For example in the text of the New Testament there are 172 passages in the KJV where a Greek word is rendered "law." 




To further complicate the matter when one uses the Strong's Concordance they will most frequently see the root word G3551 "nomos" (νόμος) listed. This term "nomos" is only ONE (1) variant of the word when there are actually in truth EIGHT (8) different variants of this term.
What happens is the student is lead to believe the same term "nomos" is present consistently throughout the New Testament when in truth there are these EIGHT (8) variants. I will list them here but we will get into them much more deeply later on.

νομοι : "nomoi"
νομον: "nomon"
νομου: "nomou"
νομω: "nomo"
νομοις: "nomois"
νόμος: "nomos"
νομους "nomous"
νομων: "nomon"

As if this wasn't confusing enough when you look up the Greek term used for the word rendered "laws" in English there are even MORE forms with a different root G3545 "nomimos".

νομιμα: "nomima"
νομιμον: "nomimon"
νομιμως: "nomomos"
νομιμοις: "nomimois"
νομιμων: "nomimon"


It gets even more confusing when more than one variant is used within a passage and each term is rendered "law" in the English; but the Greek is indicating there is some distinction between the two terms because they are DIFFERENT. Why the distinction? WHY THE DIFFERENCE?

When we were children and learned how to match symbols didn't we learn to match those that are the SAME with others that are the SAME? Friends do we not treat different things differently? Why then are we treating them the same way? 
I'd like to use something from our childhood to get you thinking. Remember the "Memory" game? We had to match objects; or even WORDS that are the same and differentiate between pictures or words that were DIFFERENT. See Cookie monster and Elmo? BOTH are similar in that they are puppets; however, they are NOT the same they are STILL DIFFERENT!!!



It was not until I began using the E-Sword software program that I began to notice a difference in the terms being used which are rendered "law." Many of these variants are found in the Pauline Epistles. Although these variants are similar in that they have the same ROOT; they are DIFFERENT because they are NOT THE SAME WORD!!!

Although E-Sword has a print function I wanted a Greek Interlinear in physical form and began to look for one. At the same time I was interested in examining the Greek terms within the LXX which translate Hebrew words. I found myself purchasing an Apostolic Polyglot which contains the Old and New Testaments in Greek in an interlinear format. It helps me to locate terms in an analog format when I don't feel like using the computer and eases things a bit because the LXX and the LXX with Strongs' numbers in E-Sword are not in an interlinear format. This is important when comparing terms to ensure you are selecting the correct Hebrew term that underlies the Greek text of the LXX. Although there are some variations in the Apostolic Polyglot I have found that often they are the same.

When I began learning about Judaism in late 2009 I discovered that they believed in two (2) Torahs which took me by surprise. I had always assumed that there was only the written Torah of Moses which you see carried; read; and treated with a great deal of respect by Rabbis. When I learned that there were even different names "Torah Shebichtav " the "Law that is Written;" and the "Torah Sheba'al Peh" the "Law upon the mouth" I became even more intrigued.

Keep in the back of your mind that we treat
same things the same way and different things differently
.

These two Torah's are NOT the same; but rather are DIFFERENT. What fascinated me the most was to learn the oral traditions predate Messiah; and, later began to be codified after the destruction of the Temple in 70AD (CE). I was also surprised to learn although it was something rejected by the Sadducees; it was highly regarded within the Pharisee party to which Rabbi Sha'ul (Paul) belonged before preaching the death; burial; and resurrection of Messiah. Notice the timeline below. 


The term "Zugot" in Hebrew refers to a plural of two identical objects. This term is used to refer to a time period in Israel's history when five (5) pairs of religious leaders ruled the Supreme Court also known as the "Bet din HaGadol." The last pair Hillel and Shammai lived during the time of Herod the Great

Messiah Himself was actually born BEFORE year "Zero" so he LIVED during the time they were living; and, during the beginning of the time of the of the "Tannaiim;" which means "repeaters." It is quite possible that Messiah even debated with Hillel and Shammai in the Temple as a child. We will talk about this more later. For now just know that this time period is extremely relevant to understanding what was happening in Israel when Messiah CAME the first time. 


One of the texts that I read was Understanding the Difficult Words of Jesus by David Bivin. Biven asserts with clarity a fact that is textually precise. A truth that is unshakable and undeniable. Pay close attention.

77 % PERCENT

Seventy Seven (77%) percent of the volume of the Bible is contained between Genesis and Malachi in the Bible. The Hebrew TaNaK has the same books; just a slightly different order. The remaining books of the New Testament; Matthew through Revelation contain the other twenty three (23%) percent. However; how much of the New Testament is raw, new text as vs. quotations of the Old Testament? 

NEW TEXT vs. QUOTATIONS

            When we factor in there are 358 quotations that I have been able to count between Matthew and 2nd Peter (see http://catholic-resources.org/Bible/Quotations-NT-OT.htm) which come directly FROM the Old Testament it erodes the "new" parts of the twenty three (23%) in a startlingly,  significant manner. What I mean by "new" is raw new material that isn't quoting or citing the TaNaK (Old Testament) in any way. These quotes which exist within the body of the New Testament writings; regardless if they are in Greek or Hebrew; are:

Quoting an original text that was Hebrew. 

This means the percentage of the Bible that must be viewed from a Hebraic perspective increases; and if we are to be an honest people we should take this into account. Then there are the parallelisms; Hebrew idioms; and chiastic structure found heavily in Hebrew poetry, and writing along with the perfect Hebrew syntax contained in the Greek sentence structure of the New Testament which points to an underlying Hebrew textIf we combine that with early sources that assert Matthew was originally penned in Hebrew we find ourselves in a position were it becomes pertinent that we seek to find the Hebrew meaning underlying the Greek text of Matthew as well as other books of the New Testament. That is what led me to work on an examination of the appearance and usage of the term "law" in the LXX and the New Testament that revealed some very interesting information.





I am going to assert strenuously that because we have not examined the New Testament from a Hebraic perspective; and, because the majority of Christians are functionally illiterate when it comes to understanding Greek; or, Hebrew there has been an unnatural slant towards the Greek meaning; and, understanding of the texts based upon the Strong's Concordance because that is how Pastors and laypersons have largely been trained over the past hundred years or so. Friends the Strong's is AN INDEX; NOT A DICTIONARY! We have been using it WRONG It is a starting point for understanding the terms and were they appear. It should NOT be the last place we look.

A recent article at www.religionnews.com titled Poll: American's love the Bible but don't read it much written by Caleb Bell April 4th, 2014 says the following
                        More than three-quarters of Americans (77 percent) think the nation’s morality is
                        headed downhill, according to a new survey from American Bible Society. The
                        survey showed the Bible is still firmly rooted in American soil: 88 percent of
                        respondents said they own a Bible, 80 percent think the Bible is sacred, 61 percent
                        wish they read the Bible more, and the average household has 4.4 Bibles... If they
                        do read it, the majority (57 percent) only read their Bibles four times a year or
                        less. Only 26 percent of Americans said they read their Bible on a regular basis
                        (four or more times a week)... Younger people also seem to be moving away from
                        the Bible. A 
majority (57 percent) of those ages 18-28 read their Bibles less than                                   three times a year, if at all. 

I was even more stunned by what was revealed in another article entitled The Scandal of Bible Illiteracy It's Out Problem by Albert Mohler President of the Southern Baptist Theological Seminary posted at www.christianheadlines.com. It isn't clear when the article was published however based upon comments on the webpage it seems to have been published in 2014.

Mr. Mohler cites research done by George Gallup and Jim Castelli of Barna Group and gives stark examples of just how illiterate Americans are when it comes to the Bible.

                        "Researchers tell us that it's worse than most could imagine...Fewer than half of
                        all adults can name the four gospels. Many Christians cannot identify more than
                        two or three of the disciples. According to data from the Barna Research Group,
                        60 percent of Americans can't name even five of the Ten Commandments. 'No 
                        wonder people break the Ten Commandments all the time. They don't know what
                        they are,' said George Barna, president of the firm. The bottom line?
                        'Increasingly, America is biblically illiterate.'" 

Certainly you have heard people say "God helps those who help themselves" yes? According to Mohler's article 82 percent of American's actually believe that is a Bible verse. Are you shocked yet? Apparently those who are self professed as being "born again" only score around 81 percent. That should take your breath away. Pay close attention to what he says next.

                        "A Barna poll indicated that at least 12 percent of adults believe that Joan of Arc
                        was Noah's wife. Another survey of graduating high school seniors revealed that
                        over 50 percent thought that Sodom and Gomorrah were husband and wife. A
                        considerable number of respondents to one poll indicated that the Sermon on the
                        Mount was preached by Billy Graham. We are in big trouble."

It doesn't end there. Mohler goes on to state that the real scandal is the Biblical Illiteracy among Christians; those who supposedly go to church.

                        "Christians who lack biblical knowledge are the products of churches that
                        marginalize biblical knowledge. Bible teaching now often accounts for only a
                        diminishing fraction of the local congregation's time and attention. The move to
                        small group ministry has certainly increased opportunities for fellowship, but
                        many of these groups never get beyond superficial Bible study."

My own personal experience with "church" before the LORD (HFHI) actually got hold of me was centralized around Wednesday night two hour Bible studies; Sunday services that lasted a little more than an hour; and, the reading of Our Daily Bread a pamphlet that takes a person through one Bible verse each day. I actually thought I KNEW what the Bible said. I thought I knew what the purpose; mission; and identity of Messiah were. That is until I actually read it personally; for myself; every book; every chapter; every verse; every word; line by line. 

It took me nine months to actually read and came on the heels of a tearful impassioned request on my knees in my bedroom as I pleaded with God to show me HIS truth and not man's. That HE would teach me; that HE would show me what HE wanted; not some denomination or individual pastor's interpretation. I had read Matthew 7:11 and Luke11:13 two passages that were so similar they were almost identical. They indicate that the Holy Spirit is a good gift; and, that God gives it to those who ASK Him for it.

                        "If you then, being evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much
                        more will your Father who is in heaven give good things to those who ask Him!"
                        (
Matthew 7:11)

                        "If you then, being evil, know then how to give good gifts to your children, how
                        much more will your heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to those who ask
                        Him?" (
Luke 11:13)

The particular evening I made this connection I prayed as I pleaded for the Father to empty me out like an empty can of old Dr. Pepper and to instead fill me up with the Holy Spirit. I remember telling Him "I don't know what it will feel like, or look like. I don't know if there will be some amazing experience or if I will act differently; but, your Word says it is a good gift; and, you give it to those who ask; so I'm asking you. Please give me your Holy Spirit. I have got to get this right!" 

I was honest with Him and told Him I didn't love His word the way that I should; but that I wanted to. I shared with Him what He already knew. "I don't know your word the way that I should; but I want to." So there I was expecting something amazing and nothing happened. At least nothing at that very moment. That night I slept rather soundly and woke up really refreshed. However the following night was the beginning of what would be a nine month period where I believe God Himself gave me insomnia.

For nine months straight I found myself unable to put down my Bible. I started in Matthew and reread through the Gospels. Then through Acts until something led me back to Genesis. I know at this point it was the Father. At the time I had purchased a pocket version of the NKJV version for my wife so she could carry it around in her purse. As soon as I had highlighted in it she said "it's yours now."

I took it everywhere; I literally mean EVERYWHERE. At the time I was in college and wore these shorts with cargo pockets. In went my Bible; several highlighters and colored pens and a spiral Oxford pack of ruled index cards for me to take notes. I read it on the bus on the way to school and on the way home. I read it in between classes and at lunch. At night I would read until 2:00 sometime 3:00am. I would read and then process what I had read the next day really chewing on what I had read.

When I got to 1st and 2nd Kings I was surprised to discover that the Northern Kingdom; known as "the house of Israel;" "Samaria;" and sometimes called "Ephraim" NEVER had a king that was righteous or obeyed the commandments of God. Not one. King after king chose to be disobedient and God would remove them; one after another. I remember thinking to myself "where I come from we call that a clue." 

I was even more surprised when I learned that it was the Northern Tribes only who were divorced from God and not Judah or Benjamin known as the Southern Kingdom. This would help me later to understand the Prophets and Messiah's message.

During this time we were attending Calvary Chapel Covina. I was studying the different positions on the timing of the "rapture" doctrine to help me to be able to give a defense for what I believed. This study rocked me to the core. The result was that I chose to leave Calvary Chapel because the head pastor (Joe Salaiz) was unable to clearly show me with the Bible why they held so fervently to a
Pre-Tribulation rapture position. I had shared a study with him on the PreWrath Position hoping he could give me clear and convincing evidence from the Bible that would refute what I had been reading. He took the study and about six weeks later returned to me and said this.


                        "James, I'm sorry it took me so long to get back to you. I've examined this
                        material and I can't find anything wrong with it scripturally. "

There I was waiting for a refutation; something; anything that would show me biblically why I should hold to the doctrine which is taught by Calvary Chapel. His response was mind blowing.

                        "You have to remember its just one man's interpretation of scripture."                     

As I looked at him I can remember thinking to myself "Aren't you just a man?" "What makes your interpretation more credible that what I just read?" "Isn't Raul Ries just a man?"; "Isn't Chuck Smith just a man?"  I was frustrated by what I had heard; and, by his failure to provide me with Biblical evidence necessary to make an intelligent, informed decision.

About a week later I was having a conversation with a friend of mine on the east coast who used to run a prophecy website. He had also left Calvary Chapel. I was expressing my frustration when he said to me "Bro don't you know that Prophecy isn't open to the private interpretation of man? Do you have a Bible nearby" he asks me. "Of course I do." My friend Rodrigo Silva directs me to 2 Peter 1:20-21

                        "...knowing this first, that no prophecy of Scripture is of any private
                        interpretation, for prophecy never came by the will of man, but holy men of God
                        spoke as they were moved by the Holy Spirit."

"Ok." I said "then how are we supposed to interpret Scripture" I asked? Rodrgo's reply was priceless and more valuable than he could possibly imagine. "We must let scripture interpret scripture." The question is if everyone claims they are doing just that; why is there such an enormous swing in what is taught from the pulpit?

My assertion is that the majority of Christians; and, their pastors will tell you that the New Testament is "scripture." I challenge you; yes YOU the person reading this to examine the terms "scripture;" "scriptures;" and the phrase Messiah uses "it is written" and go find what is referenced. 

FIND WHERE the quote is coming from. FIND what the Bible is calling "scripture" or "the scriptures." FIND where IT IS WRITTEN! If you will actually do that I can tell you what you will find. However if I tell you; then you will tend to disbelieve it. If however you find it yourself you WILL believe it. I know exactly what you are going to find because I did it myself. It was a process that took time.

The term "scripture" appears 32 times in the KJV while the term "scriptures" appears 21 times in the KJV. The underlying Greek term is G1124 (γραφή) and it appears 51 times between Matthew and Revelation.  There are actually seven (7) different variations of the term between the LXX and the Greek New Testament. What is clear is that a close examination will reveal overwhelmingly that NONE of the New Testament writers EVER quote another New Testament writer calling their work "scripture" or "scriptures." Zero, Zilch, Nada, Zip.

If I write you a letter and repeatedly quote the scriptures; that DOES NOT MAKE MY LETTER SCRIPTURE. If I give testimony about what I see or hear that DOES NOT MAKE MY TESTIMONY SCRIPTURE.

Out of fifty one passages; only one (1) is used to justify calling the New Testament "scripture,"
2 Peter 3:16 in which Paul's writings are clearly referred to as "Epistles" (
επιστολαις) and not scripture. There are those who will argue that "scriptures" just means "something written." The Qu'ran is written; does that qualify it as scripture? What about the Constitution of the United States is it not "written?" Does that mean I can use that as an argument it is scripture? Of course not!

Many today are asserting Paul's writings are "scripture" because a group of men decided to proclaim Paul scripture. Unfortunately many of these "early fathers" teach in opposition to what the Bible itself defines as "scripture" by citing it; quoting it; or directing our attention towards it.

If you look at the term "Epistles" (επιστολαις) it is used in the LXX translation of the Hebrew Old Testament to point out "letters" written by Ephraim and Manasseh by Hezekiah; yet, Hezekiah's letters to them are not called "scripture" or "scriptures" (2 Chronicles 31:1).

In Ezra 4:6 it indicates during the reign of Ahasuerus there was an "accusation" written against the inhabitants of Judah and Jerusalem. The same term; however a variant, for Paul's writings is used here. Does that make the accusation scripture? Of course not.

In Nehemiah 6:5 Sanballat who was an enemy of the Jews sent a letter. Although the letter is mentioned Sanballat's letter is in itself NOT Scripture. In Ester 3:14 it discusses a letter that was sent out from the King that was urged by Haman. In the letters they gave those in the provinces permission to destroy, kill, and to annihilate all the Jews both young and old. Just because they are mentioned along with their context does not make the wicked letter "scripture."

Right now the church is busy interpreting the scriptures using Paul as a lens. It looks a bit like this diagram below.





Christians are taught that anything in these books that speaks of blessings belong to them when they are clearly for Israel. They are taught that the Torah is for the "Jew" and not the Christian because they are under "grace" and the Jew is "under law." Christians have been taught for CENTURIES that they are grafted into Messiah and NOT grafted into Israel. They have been taught that they are still gentiles and are separate from Israel.


This lens creates disunity within what is SUPPOSED to be ONE BODY. The Body of Messiah is supposed to be made up of both Jews and Non-Jews. We need as a people to recognize WHAT the BIBLE calls "scripture" so that we can properly apply Timothy's exhortation when he says:

                        "All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for
                        reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, that the man of God may
                        be thoroughly equipped for every good work."

Friends notice is says "all scripture" and not "just the New Testament" it specifically says "scripture" however the Biblical definition of "scripture" is not "The New Testament." Additionally the italics of the term "is" means it doesn't appear in the Greek. The verse doesn't read "all scripture is given by inspiration of God..." It says "all scripture GIVEN BY GOD is profitable for doctrine, reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness." In fact the Greek indicates all scripture "GOD BREATHED" is useful for these things. What does the Bible define as "Scripture?" What DID GOD SAY WITH HIS OWN MOUTH THAT HE COMMANDED TO BE RECORDED? 

If you are ignoring the statutes, commandments, judgments, ordinances, and testimonies contained in the Torah because you believe they aren't for you then my friend you aren't thoroughly equipped for every good work.

As I write this I already know there are New Testament Christians who are freaking out and accusing me of heresy; or being a false teacher; or the antichrist. I also know that those who are doing so haven't taken the time to examine all 51 passages that use the term "scripture" or "scriptures." I also know they haven't taken the time to go and examine all the passage where the phrase "it is written" appears where it quotes another place in the Bible. How do I know? Because I did it myself and if they did the study themselves they CANNOT have another conclusion.

I tell you the truth the location of where "it is written" it in the Hebrew TaNaK; not the New Testament. Messiah Himself calls Moses, all the Prophets, and the Psalms "scripture" in the last chapter of Luke.

                        "And beginning at Moses and all the Prophets, He expounded to them in all the
                        Scriptures the things concerning Himself." Luke 24:27

                        "Then He said to them, 'These are the words which I spoke to you while I was still
                        with you, that all these things must be fulfilled which were written in the Law of
                        Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms concerning Me." Luke 24:44

If Messiah calls Moses Scripture; if Messiah call ALL THE PROPHETS scripture; if Messiah references the Psalms as SCRIPTURE because Messiah HIMSELF "expounded to them in all the SCRIPTURES the things concerning Himself;" and PSALMS concerns Messiah then IT ALSO IS SCRIPTURE.

My Friends these are "profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, that the man of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work." Yet when you DO the Majority of Christians immediately turn to the writings of Paul to negate by way of "grace" anything that even hints or suggests we should be keeping Torah.

I tell you the truth; If I teach that ANY OF THESE were "nailed to the cross;" "fulfilled;" "done away with;" or "for the Jews" then I tell you the truth that PERSON; or THAT congregation is not thoroughly equipped. Again I tell you the truth; that person is not able to instruct another person in righteousness.

This has come upon us by the Father allowing the adversary to run rampant within the camp. He has allowed the afflicter to have his way by inserting men who are really workers of iniquity into the pulpit. The adversary has done it by keeping the Old and New Testaments separated and handled as two separate collections of texts instead of one. He has maintained an attitude of
"if I can't beat them; then join them" in order to infiltrate; deceive; divide; and conquer.

Even the Strong's Concordance serves to help keep the two separated by way of the Hebrew section and the Greek Section (which DOESN'T INCLUDE THE LXX). As I write this I am unaware of a Strong's version that will show you WHERE in the LXX a Greek word appears that is used in the New Testament. It is VITAL that we learn to treat this living text as a joined document instead of a series of disjointed writings.

When I began to examine the New Testament terms and look for WHERE or IF they appear in the (LXX) the Greek Translation of the TaNaK I found a great deal of valuable information. However I also discovered that there is literally a barrier to understanding the Bible that has been manufactured by those who have sought to bring enlightenment.

It was not until I began to use E-Sword and look at the Greek Concordance to the Scriptures; the King James Concordance; the Concordance to the Septuagint; the Concordance to the TaNaK; and, the Strong's Bible Dictionary with LXX cross references that I began to really see where we were missing huge chunks of material that would help us to understand the text of the New Testament properly.

One of the questions I had initially before I discovered the multiple variations that each Greek word has was if the term "Torah" was always rendered "law." I hadn't realized it but my question SHOULD have been "Is the English term "law" always used to translate the Hebrew term "Torah." When I finally looked at it this way I found something I couldn't ignore; and, I don't believe you should either.

I discovered that only one (1) of the variants for the Greek term law Strong's # G3551 "nomos" is ALWAYS used to translate the Hebrew term "Torah" while two (2) variants are NEVER used to translate the Hebrew term "Torah."

Additionally I learned that two (2) of the variants NEVER appear in the New Testament.

Of the remaining three (3) variants for the Greek term for law G3551 "nomos" they are used in such a broad way that they can refer to both Torah and also to the decrees of men.


When I learned that there are passages in the New Testament where the term "law" appears in English; while the underlying Greek terms are DIFFERENT I now had a way to distinguish WHY.

Come along with me as you draw closer to understanding the one who bled for you and I on that miserable stake after he was humiliated, spit upon and mocked for our benefit. Come and see Him as he really is.